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Showing posts with label MULTIPLE CHOICE. Show all posts
Showing posts with label MULTIPLE CHOICE. Show all posts

Let us study about Perfect competition Today


PERFECT COMPETITION

- a very large number of small producers or sellers,
- a standardized, homogeneous product,
- the inability of individual sellers to influence price,
- the free entry and exit of sellers in the market, and
- unnecessary nonprice actions."

Examples of markets in perfect competition are extremely rare. Numerous markets in the retail, service and agricultural sectors approach perfect competition best. But, in the agricultural sector, government support price programs distort the market mechanism. Not withstanding the lack of good examples, this form of market is important because of its

PERFECT COMPETITION NUMBER OF FIRMS
The very large number of firms in perfect competition implies that each individual firm is very small in comparison to the total market. Indeed, if one firm were to become significantly large, it would dominate the market and competition would be eliminated or at least diminished.

In the milk production segment of agriculture, farms are usuallysmall. They are especially small compared to the size of the entire market for milk. Note that the milk distributors are occasionally large, but not the productive farms.

PERFECT COMPETITION STANDARDIZED PRODUCT
The product in perfect competition is said to be standardized (or homogeneous). This means that it does not make any difference to customers which specific firm sells the product:
it is absolutely identical. This is the main distinction between perfect competition and monopolistic competition: once some differences can be recognized by customers, firms acquire
power over these customers.

Milk is a uniform and homogen eous product. It is not possible to make a distinction between the milk of one farm and another. The government has indeed set standards of quality, fat content and cleanliness.

PRICE TAKER
The firms in perfect competition have no power over price: they have to sell at the going market price. The firms in perfect competition are said to be price takers. Should a firm attempt to raise the price by the smallest possible amount, customers would not buy from it because they could buy the same product from other firms. Lowering the price is also not necessary because the firm can already sell all its output at the going price.

A milk producer who would try to raise his/her revenues by increasing the price for milk, would find the company collecting the milk in that region unwilling to buy his/her milk any longer. One individual farmer is thus unable to affect the price of milk in the entire market.

PERFECT
COMPETITION ENTRY AND EXIT
There are no barriers to entry to or exit from a market in perfect competition. This condition assures that no firm will dominate the market and evict other firms. It also assures that the number of firms (although changing) will remain large.

Agricultural production can start for most crops by simply planting on a parcel of land. For instance, that is true for fruit trees and vegetables. (It is true. however, that for some products such as milk or tobacco, the government limits production because of the existing overproduction).

PERFECT COMPETITION NONPRICE ACTION
Nonprice actions such as advertising, service after sale or warranty, are not necessary in perfect competition because the firm can already sell all its output at the going price, and incurring additional expense would only make it unprofitable. Nonprice action for the entire industry may however be useful

A single milk producer cannot possibly influence the consumption of milk at large, and needs not advertise. An association of milkproducers or a large milk distributor may, however, be in aposition to use advertisement effectively.

PERFECT COMPETITION DEMAND
The demand of firms in perfect competition is perfectly elastic (i.e., the smallest possible price change results in a virtually infinite quantity change). Such demand is represented graphically by a horizontal demand curve: no matter what quantity is sold, the price is the same, and it is the going price in the market.

Graph

Nationwide, the demand for milk is likely to be downsloping, that is inversely related to price. But for a single milk producer, it is given by the price the farmer can receive: the going market price. It does not change, no matter what quantity the farmer produces. Thus demand is horizontal.

PERFECT COMPETITION MARGINAL REVENUE
The horizontal demand curve is also the marginal revenue of a firm in perfect competition. The marginal revenue, or additional revenue from one more unit sold, is just equal to the going price (which is shown graphically by the demand curve itself). Note that the average revenue is also the demand curve and total revenue is an upsloping straight line.

PROFIT MAXIMIZATION

A firm must seek to sell a volume of output where its total revenue exceeds its total cost by the largest amount possible; that is, its profit is the maximum.

LOSS MINIMIZATION
If a firm fails to derive a profit, it may nevertheless seek, in the short run, to produce at that level of sales where the difference between its cost and its revenue, i.e., its loss, is minimum.

CLOSE DOWN DECISION
If a firm has revenues that are insufficient to cover even its fixed costs in the short run, the firm must close down.

BREAK-EVEN POINT
The volume of output where total revenue is equal to total cost is known as the break-even point. A firm must be beyond its break-even point in order to be maximizing its profit.

MARGINAL REVENUE MARGINAL COST RULE
Producing at the level of output where marginal revenue equals marginal cost is equivalent to profit maximization. Indeed, if one less unit were to be produced, profit would be smaller by the excess of marginal revenue over marginal cost for that last unit. If one more unit were to be produced, profit would also be smaller, this time by the excess of marginal cost over marginal revenue.

MARGINAL REVENUE MARGINAL COST
The marginal revenue = marginal cost rule is applicable to loss minimization as well as profit maximization. However, if marginal revenue intersects marginal cost below average variable cost, it means that revenues are not sufficient to cover fixed costs and the firm should close down.

MAXIMUM PROFIT
The maximum profit is obtained by first determining the level of output for which marginal revenue equals marginal cost (thus profits cannot possibly be increased). Then determining 1- total revenue given by price multiplied by quantity, 2- total cost given by average total cost multiplied by quantity, 3- the difference between 1 and 2 above is the profit (or loss).

MAXIMUM PROFIT GRAPH
Since maximum profit is the excess of total revenue over total cost, it is shown graphically as the area by which the total revenue rectangle exceeds the total cost rectangle. The height of total revenue rectangle is the price received by the firm, and the width is the optimum quantity (where MR=MC). The height of total cost rectangle is average total cost (on ATC curve), and the width is the optimum quantity.

Graph

SHORT RUN SUPPLY CURVE
The short run supply curve of firms in perfect competition is the upsloping portion of the marginal cost curve (above the average variable cost intersection). Indeed, a firm determines its optimum volume of sales by taking the intersection of marginal revenue and marginal cost. The marginal revenue is also the price it receives. Thus supplier's price-quantity combinations are given by the marginal cost upsloping portion.

LONG RUN PERFECT COMPETITION EQUILIBRIUM
The long run equilibrium for firms in perfect competition is where demand (and marginal revenue which is identical to it) is tangent to the minimum of average total cost (where marginal cost also intersects average total cost). At that point, there is no profit or loss for the firm. (Note that there is no pure or economic profit, but normal profit must still be covered).

ENTRY OF FIRMS IN PERFECT COMPETITION
Should demand be above the minimum of average total cost, pure profit would exist for firms in perfect competition. This profit would attract new firms to the industry. Such entry of new firms is not impeded by any entry barriers in industries in perfect competition. The new firms would increase the total market supply and drive the price down. The lower price pushes the demand for each firm down toward or even below the equilibrium minimum average total cost point.

EXIT OF FIRMS IN PERFECT COMPETITION
Should the demand be below the minimum of average total cost, losses of firms would force some firms to leave the industry. As firms leave, a decreasing total supply pushes price back up. The increasing price lifts the demand curves for individual firms upward toward or even above the equilibrium point. Firms departure or entry will continue until the price settles to be just equal to minimum average cost.

LONG RUN SUPPLY CURVE
The long run supply curve for an industry in perfect competition is perfectly elastic (that is horizontal) in constant-cost industries and upsloping in increasing-cost industries. Whether an industry is constant-cost or increasing-cost is determined by
the presence of adequate or insufficient resources.

PERFECT COMPETITION ECONOMIC EFFECT
Perfect competition is seen as an ideal or optimum form of market because of its very beneficial economic effect for society, which comes from
- allocative efficiency, and- productive efficiency.
But there are a few shortcomings nevertheless.

PRODUCTIVE EFFICIENCY
The productive efficiency of perfect competition can be observed in the long run equilibrium point of all firms in the industry, which is at the minimum of average total cost. This means that
all firms are forced to cut their costs and utilize the best available technology in order to have their minimum average total cost no higher than that of all the other firms in the industry. There is also no under or over utilized capacity.

ALLOCATIVE EFFICIENCY
The allocative efficiency in perfect competition comes from the fact that the quantity produced by each firm is just that for which the price paid by society is equal to the cost of additional resources (marginal cost). More could not possibly be obtained for a lower price. The resources are also the most efficiently allocated among industries since firms will bid for these resources up to the price consumers want to pay for them.

PERFECT COMPETITION SHORTCOMINGS
In spite of its beneficial economic effect, perfect competition fails to
- provide any correction for income distribution inequity,
- generate any public goods since there is not profit,
- stimulate technological progress because of lack of profits,
- offer diversity in products since these are standardized.

Question Bank - Business Studies

Human Resource Management: Test 1

Q1. What is meant by the term 'management by objectives'?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A system of giving the authority to carry out certain jobs by those lower down the management hierarchy.
(b) * The system of management that is based on bringing together experts into a team.
(c) * The setting of objectives to bring about the achievement of the corporate goals.
(d) * The control of the organisation by those in the 'head office'.


Source: bized


Q2. A manager may delegate any of the following except

(Select one answer)


(a) * authority.
(b) * workload.
(c) * responsibility.
(d) * attendance at meetings to represent the department.


Source: bized


Q3. Workforce planning involves all of the following except

(Select one answer)


(a) * organising the training of staff.
(b) * forecasting future personnel requirements.
(c) * examining production plans in a factory.
(d) * preparing and maintaining personnel records.


Source: bized


Q4. Maslow, in his triangle of human needs, showed that

(Select one answer)


(a) * having challenging new tasks is a basic human need.
(b) * money always motivates workers.
(c) * safety and security is a low order human need.
(d) * workers will not give of their best unless they have good social events provided by the firm.


Source: bized


Q5. Piecework is a payment system where the worker is

(Select one answer)


(a) * paid overtime for any hours worked beyond 25 per week.
(b) * rewarded for good conduct.
(c) * is paid a minimum of £4.20 per hour.
(d) * is paid for what he or she achieves.


Source: bized


Q6. Which of the following will NOT result following the introduction of a more decentralised system of management?

(Select one answer)


(a) * Increased motivation amongst those empowered to make decisions.
(b) * Greater consistency in the decisions made.
(c) * The development of skills amongst the junior members of the management team.
(d) * An increase in the speed at which essential decisions are made.


Source: bized


Q7. An advantage of recruitment from outside the company is

(Select one answer)


(a) * that it is cheaper than internal recruitment.
(b) * that there is no need to advertise the vacancy.
(c) * that it brings in new experience and skills to the firm.
(d) * that it avoids jealousy within the firm.


Source: bized


Q8. When designing his hierarchy of needs triangle Maslow did NOT include one of these. Was it?

(Select one answer)


(a) * Good wages and salaries and working conditions.
(b) * The need to feel secure at work with adequate financial rewards such as pensions to assist one later in life.
(c) * The need to build a career path .
(d) * Opportunities for teamworking and social events that allow a sense of belonging to emerge.


Source: bized


Q9. When deciding on objectives for management it is advised that companies should aim to achieve 'SMART' within these. Which of the following is NOT part of the SMART scheme?

(Select one answer)


(a) * The need to be Specific in the choice of objectives.
(b) * The need to make objectives Tangible.
(c) * All objectives must be Measurable.
(d) * For personnel to feel capable of reaching objectives they must be Achievable.


Source: bized


Q10. Which of the following is a reason for introducing a matrix management system?

(Select one answer)


(a) * Because it allows for an easily understood functional responsibility chart to designed.
(b) * The management can increase the use of delegation within the organisation.
(c) * The senior management wants to develop a clearly defined set of responsibilities.
(d) * A more centralised system of control is required.


Source: bized


Q11. What is meant by the term functional management?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A system of business organisation that is based on an individual having a wide range of skills needed to administer a business..
(b) * A type of management that is based more on personality.
(c) * A system that groups together various jobs and is organised by departments, sections or functions.
(d) * A system that supports a flat form of command chain.


Source: bized


Q12. What is meant by the term delegation?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A system of management that relies on consulting employees before making decisions.
(b) * The process of using goals as the best way of motivating managers to achieve corporate targets/objectives.
(c) * The giving of tasks by a manager to a subordinate.
(d) * A style of management supported by FW Taylor.


Source: bized


Q13. Which of the following is a reason for supporting a wider span of control within an organisation?

(Select one answer)


(a) * The management wants to reduce the opportunities for delegation.
(b) * There is a need for tighter control within the business.
(c) * The business accepts that within its management there will be increased contact between managers and employees.
(d) * Management wishes to introduce a process of de-layering.


Source: bized


Q14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a narrow span of control?

(Select one answer)


(a) * There is less opportunity to delegate.
(b) * This form of span of control creates a smaller hierarchy within the business.
(c) * Supervision and control are tighter.
(d) * The distance between the top and bottom of the organisation is greater.


Source: bized


Q15. The effectiveness of wide spans of control will depend on

(Select one answer)


(a) * The ability of the chosen manager to control effectively those under their control.
(b) * Designing a complex set of tasks for less senior personnel to perform.
(c) * Employees being treated in a more Theory X way (McGregor) and not left to supervise their own working environment.
(d) * The senior management wishing to encourage promotion from within its current staff.


Source: bized


Q16. Which of the following is the best definition of a centralised management system?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A system that encourages empowerment of workers.
(b) * A management structure that concentrates on developing the skills of junior personnel.
(c) * A system that involves authority and responsibility for decision-making being in the hands of senior managers.
(d) * A system that encourages faster decision-making.


Source: bized



Human Resource Management: Test 2

Q1. Most management teams use 'appraisal' but what is meant by this term?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A system used to improve the performance of personnel.
(b) * The main way in which an employees wages are determined.
(c) * A system of reward points offered by retailers to attract customer loyalty.
(d) * The evaluation of an individual employee's performance over a given period of time.


Source: bized


Q2. In recent years autonomous working groups have come to play an important part in many businesses. What are their essential features?

(Select one answer)


(a) * The group reports directly to the senior management above them in the hierarchy of the firm.
(b) * The creation of teams which have a high level of autonomy and control over their immediate working environment.
(c) * The bringing together of various individuals who have a common interest in solving certain problems.
(d) * A group of experts brought into research new ways of producing a product.


Source: bized


Q3. Authoritarian leadership is a term often seen in textbooks. What does it mean?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A style of leadership where the leader keeps a very tight control on all information and decision-making processes.
(b) * A system of leadership that allows maximum participation by all employees.
(c) * A chain of command that is flat and allows considerable personal freedom to make decisions.
(d) * The selling of debts to an agency, who take responsibility for their collection.


Source: bized




Human Resource Management: Test 3

Q1. Ineffective planning of workforce would be highlighted by

(Select one answer)


(a) * Recruitment and selection problems.
(b) * The need to out source some of the production.
(c) * A need to offer retraining to current employees.
(d) * An opportunity to increase the use of mechanisation.


Source: bized


Q2. Which of the following is one of the factors that might influence the style of leadership used by a firm?

(Select one answer)


(a) * Accepting that employees who agree are favoured.
(b) * Workers should be left to be more in control of their own working environment.
(c) * Offering profit sharing as part of employees remuneration package.
(d) * The skills expected from each employee.


Source: bized


Q3. Which of the following will influence the style of management used by a company?

(Select one answer)


(a) * The desire by the owner to have the workforce treat him in a fatherly way.
(b) * The need to focus discussions on policy as a joint process between employees and employer / manager.
(c) * The culture of the company, the nature of its work and the preferences of the individual managers.
(d) * The use of distinct penalties for poor performance.


Source: bized


Q4. What is meant by the term empowerment?

(Select one answer)


(a) * A process of giving employees greater autonomy and decision-making powers.
(b) * A system that encourages workers to move more freely within the workforce.
(c) * The opportunity to share in the company's profits.
(d) * A formal system of leadership that relies greatly on control.


Source: bized


Q5. Which of the following will influence the method of recruitment and selection used by a company?

(Select one answer)


(a) * The state of the economy.
(b) * The size of the organisation.
(c) * The type of training programmes used by the company.
(d) * The possible expansion of UK business in Europe.


Source: bized


Q6. Which of the following is an accurate definition of recruitment?

(Select one answer)


(a) * The process of attempting to fill gaps that exist in the skills of the current labour force.
(b) * The system of following someone around and noting how they perform their duties.
(c) * The process by which companies fill the need to find new employees.
(d) * A statement that enshrines the fundamental objectives of the company.


Source: bized


Q7. Which of the following is NOT normally a sign of poor morale amongst a workforce?

(Select one answer)


(a) * High levels of absenteeism.
(b) * High levels of turnover.
(c) * Increased levels of personal productivity.
(d) * A poor external image and difficulties attracting good recruits.


Source: bized


Q8. Which of the following IS one of Herzberg's 'motivational factors'?

(Select one answer)


(a) * Opportunities to achieve some personal advancement within the organisation.
(b) * The application of respected supervision of employees by those responsible for this role within the organisation.
(c) * Within organisations it is the workings of groups that influence codes of behaviour.
(d) * People are primarily motivated by money and little else.


Source: bized


Q9. Which of the following is one of Herzberg's 'hygiene factors'?

(Select one answer)


(a) * Recognition in the workplace.
(b) * A reasonable salary.
(c) * An opportunity to take some responsibility in ones place of work.
(d) * Developing a sense of achievement in the working environment.


Source: bized

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